EvilZone

Encyclopedia Galactica => Science => : rasenove January 18, 2014, 10:22:20 AM

: 1 = 2
: rasenove January 18, 2014, 10:22:20 AM

Lets see...

:

If m = n,

=> m^2 = mn
=> (m^2) - (n^2) = mn - (n^2)
=> (m+n) (m-n) = n(m-n)
=> m+n = n
=> n+n =  n [since m = n]
=> 2n = n
=> 2 = 1
Now where did it go wrong?

: Re: 1 = 2
: kat January 18, 2014, 12:08:46 PM

You are dividing with 0 from the third line to the fourth. Since m=n => m-n=0.

: Re: 1 = 2
: Axon January 18, 2014, 01:14:59 PM

Seriously rasenove?

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Fallacy.html

Learn some real mathematical deduction.

: Re: 1 = 2
: rasenove January 18, 2014, 01:40:44 PM

: Axon  January 18, 2014, 01:14:59 PM

Seriously rasenove?

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Fallacy.html

Learn some real mathematical deduction.

:/ not that I didn't know the answer...
Also, its 'education' not 'deducation'

: Re: 1 = 2
: Deque January 18, 2014, 02:10:06 PM

: rasenove  January 18, 2014, 01:40:44 PM

:/ not that I didn't know the answer...
Also, its 'education' not 'deducation'

I am pretty sure he meant deduction. ;)

: Re: 1 = 2
: rasenove January 18, 2014, 02:16:22 PM

: Deque  January 18, 2014, 02:10:06 PM

I am pretty sure he meant deduction. ;)

Overlooked that I guess :p

: Re: 1 = 2
: Architect January 19, 2014, 10:55:22 AM

If m=n, and m=2, then n will NEVER be equal to anything other than 2.

Proof:
Your first job in solving this is to take the square root of m^2, which is:

=> m^2 = mn
=> sqrt(m^2) = n
 
Why are you doing (m^2) - (n^2) = mn - (n^2) ?

If solving for n, you must:
a. m*m = m*n
b. divide both sides by m
m^2=mn

m = 2
m*m = m*n
m^2 OR 2*2 = 4
sqrt(4) = 2
4/2 = 2 = n

m = x = n where x is whatever value you give

If solving for m, you must:
a. m*m = m*n
b. divide both sides by n
m^2 = mn

n = 2
n*n = m*n
n^2 OR 2*2 = 4
sqrt(4) = 2
4/2 = 2 = m

n = x = m where x is whatever value you give

: Re: 1 = 2
: wow1best June 16, 2014, 10:17:47 PM

Amazing lol :D

: Re: 1 = 2
: z423x5c6 June 18, 2014, 05:06:52 PM

there is a "proof" using only one variable
a^2 - a^2 = a^2 - a^2
a(a-a)=(a+a)(a-a)
a=a+a
1=2
same trick (dividing by zero)

: Re: 1 = 2
: Architect June 18, 2014, 06:11:19 PM

: z423x5c6  June 18, 2014, 05:06:52 PM

there is a "proof" using only one variable
a^2 - a^2 = a^2 - a^2
a(a-a)=(a+a)(a-a)
a=a+a
1=2
same trick (dividing by zero)

Not if a = 0.

a^2 - a^2 = a^2 - a^2
a(a-a)=(a+a)(a-a)
0=0+0

This is a true (technically I mean false here), totally non-false statement for everything but 0.
a=0 makes your proof true, anything else is false.

: Re: 1 = 2
: z3ro June 19, 2014, 06:22:21 AM

(http://ayshbanaysh.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/04/stevethisisbullshit-meme-generator-guys-this-is-bullshit-a1f218.jpg)

Seriously, trying to mathematically prove 1 = 2 ...  ???

: Re: 1 = 2
: Architect June 19, 2014, 07:42:18 AM

: z3ro  June 19, 2014, 06:22:21 AM

Seriously, trying to mathematically prove 1 = 2 ...  ???

B-b-but muh maths.